RRB ALP CBT 1 — 13 Feb 2026 — Shift I — Official Paper — Kerala PSC PYQ Practice with Answers

Correct answer (Option C):\nLet us look at the alphabetical positions for each letter-cluster pair:\nP(16), T(20) and M(13), R(18). Difference: 16 - 13 = 3, 20 - 18 = 2.\nE(5), I(9) and B(2), F(6). Difference: 5 - 2 = 3, 9 - 6 = 3.\nN(14), R(18) and K(11), O(15). Difference: 14 - 11 = 3, 18 - 15 = 3.\nJ(10), N(14) and G(7), K(11). Difference: 10 - 7 = 3, 14 - 11 = 3.\nAll pairs have a constant difference of -3 between corresponding positions except PT-MR, where the second letter decreases by 2.\nOption C is correct.\n\nWhy others are wrong:\nOptions A, B, and D all follow a uniform shifting pattern of decreasing by 3 positions for both letters.\n\nStudy tip:\nAlways map letters to positional numbers quickly to track patterns in alphanumeric analogies.

Correct answer (Option C):\nLet the Cost Price (CP) be 100.\nMarked Price (MP) = 100 + 40% of 100 = 140.\nProfit = 10%, so Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 10 = 110.\nDiscount Amount = MP - SP = 140 - 110 = 30.\nDiscount percentage (d%) = (Discount / MP) × 100\nStep 1: d% = (30 / 140) × 100\nStep 2: d% = 300 / 14 = 21.42%\nRounding off to the closest available integer option gives 21%.\nOption C is correct.\n\nWhy others are wrong:\nOptions A, B, and D do not equal the calculated discount percentage value of 21%.\n\nStudy tip:\nUse 100 as a base value for CP to solve markup and discount questions easily without variable complexity.

Correct answer (Option B):\nLet the Cost Price (CP) = 100.\nMarked Price (MP) = 100 + 20% of 100 = 120.\nDesired Gain = 2%, so Selling Price (SP) = 102.\nDiscount Amount = MP - SP = 120 - 102 = 18.\nDiscount % = (Discount / MP) × 100\nStep 1: Discount % = (18 / 120) × 100\nStep 2: Discount % = (3 / 20) × 100 = 15%\nOption B is correct.\n\nWhy others are wrong:\nOptions A, C, and D evaluate to different values which do not provide a profit of exactly 2%.\n\nStudy tip:\nRemember the relational formula: MP × (100 - D%) = CP × (100 + P%) to solve markup problems quickly.

Correct answer (Option B):\nLet the principal sum be P.\nInterest for the 1st year = 20% of P = 0.20P.\nPrincipal for the 2nd year = P + 0.20P = 1.20P.\nInterest earned during the 2nd year = 20% of 1.20P = 0.24P.\nGiven that the interest for the 2nd year is ₹3072:\nStep 1: 0.24P = 3072\nStep 2: P = 3072 / 0.24\nStep 3: P = 12800\nOption B is correct.\n\nWhy others are wrong:\nOptions A, C, and D are numerically incorrect values that do not satisfy the equation for a 2nd-year interest of ₹3072.\n\nStudy tip:\nInterest in the nth year of compound interest can be calculated by computing the interest directly on the amount accumulated up to the end of the (n-1)th year.

Correct answer (Option D):\nFormula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100\nGiven: SI = 480, T = 2 years, R = 10%\nStep 1: 480 = (P × 10 × 2) / 100\nStep 2: 480 = 20P / 100\nStep 3: 480 = P / 5\nStep 4: P = 480 × 5 = 2400\nOption D is correct.\n\nWhy others are wrong:\nOptions A, B, and C provide incorrect interest totals under the given rates and periods.\n\nStudy tip:\nSimple interest formulas can be rearranged safely as P = (SI × 100) / (R × T) to solve directly for the principal amount.